In The Euthyphro, when Euthyphro proposes the definition of what is pious as
what is loved by (all) the gods, Socrates asks whether something is pious
because it is loved by (all) the gods, or whether the gods (all) love it because it is
pious a question that has come to be known as the Euthyphro Dilemma. Why
is this a dilemma? What might be thought problematic about the answer that what
is pious is pious (or, more generally, good) because the gods (or God) love it?
What might be thought problematic about the answer that the gods (or God) loves
something because it is pious (or, more generally, good)? Assuming that a God or
gods exist, do you think that either of these possibilities would be defensible?
Why or why not?
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